व्याप्यव्यापकता मिथ्या सर्वमात्मेति शासनात् ।इति ज्ञाते परे तत्त्वे भेदस्यावसरः कुतः ॥ ४६ ॥
In plain words
Pervader and pervaded — that whole arrangement is false, because scripture says outright: all of this is the Self. Once the supreme reality is known that way, where would difference find any room at all?
Close to the Sanskrit
The relation of pervaded and pervader is false, because of the teaching 'all is the Self'. When the supreme Reality is known thus, whence is there room for difference?